Or HaChaim on Exodus 31:12/אור החיים על שמות ל״א:י״ב

1 ויאמר ה׳ אל משה, G'd said to Moses, etc. We have to examine why the Torah changed here to using the word ויאמר when describing G'd as speaking to Moses whereas all the time He was described as וידבר, speaking in a stern voice. I have seen a comment by our sages in the Mechilta according to which the term ויאמר ה׳ indicates that G'd did not speak to Moses through an intermediary, i.e. angel, but directly. If so, we must still analyse what change had occurred since 31,1 where G'd was still reported as speaking through an intermediary, i.e. וידבר ה׳ אל משה לאמר. Not only that, but why did the author of the Mechilta wait until here to give us this information? This should have been explained when we find that G'd was speaking to Moses as וידבר ה׳ the first time this occurs. [The author suggests an answer based on a variant text of the Mechilta not at my disposal. Ed.]